Not a particularly elegant solution, but...
Take logs and get:
ln(2x)*ln(2)=ln(3x)*ln(3) <=>
ln(2x)/ln(3) = ln(3x)/ln(2) <=>
We can use the fact that ln(x) = - ln(1/x) and we see immediately that setting x=1/6 will give us -1 = -1 and is therefore a rational solution.
In fact, let {a,b} be two non-zero constants, then ln(a*x)*ln(a)=ln(b*x)*ln(b) will always admit a solution at x = 1/(a*b). This is easily checked by plugging in the solution.
Moreover, this solution is unique (if a =/= b) because of the strictly increasing and concavity properties of the log function.
To see this note that ln(a.x)= ln(a)+ln(x) and that ln(a)*ln(x) and ln(b)*ln(x) never intercept, so once the above expressions intercept, they will never do so again.
I was just going to add that you can solve for x explicitly:
(2x)^ln(2) = (3x)^ln(3)
Taking ln of both sides:
ln(2)*(ln(2)+ln(x)) = ln(3)*(ln(3)+ln(x))
Grouping ln(x) on the left:
ln(x)*(ln(3)-ln(2)) = (ln(2))^2 - (ln(3))^2
ln(x) = ((ln(2))^2 - (ln(3))^2) / ln(3/2) = K
x = e^K
Plugging in the numbers, we get x = 1/6 as Palynka noted above.
Originally posted by joe shmoYou had a point, though. I did misread the initial problem. I'm not used to lg notation as I usually use log or ln for natural logarithm and log10 for base 10 (and logb for base b...). It just doesn't change as the actual base for the logarithm isn't used, just general logarithm properties.
ok,...so I was missing something.
thanks